Download 200-301 Study Questions To Pass Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions

1. Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

2. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

3. A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths.

Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

4. What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

5. Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

6. By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

7. What is a benefit of VRRP?

8. When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured'? (Choose two)

9. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

10. Refer to the exhibit.





The P2P blocking action option is disabled on the WLC.

11. Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)

12. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

13. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

14. What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

15. Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

16. OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2.

Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

17. Refer to the exhibit.





Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

18. Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

19. What is used as a solution for protecting an individual network endpoint from attack?

20. Refer to the exhibit.





What is the subnet mask for route 172.16.4.0?

21. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

22. Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?

23. Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?

24. How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

25. Refer to the exhibit.





An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours.

What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

26. What is the function of "off-the-shell" switches in a controller-based network?

27. What is the role of SNMP in the network?

28. An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch.

What command must be configured?

29. What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

30. Refer to the exhibit.





Which two values does router R1 use to identify valid routes for the R3 loopback address 1.1.1.3/32? (Choose two.)

31. Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

32. Refer to the exhibit.





Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1.

What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

33. What is a function of TFTP in network operations?

34. Refer to the exhibit.





An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host"

Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?

35. Refer to the exhibit.





How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?

36. How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model?

37. Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

38. Which channel-group mode must be configured when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?

39. Refer to the exhibit.





An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic.

Which configuration accomplishes this task?

A. interface gigabitethernet1/1

switchport mode access

switchport access vlan 300

switchport voice vlan 400

B. interface gigabitethernet1/1

switchport mode access

switchport access vlan 400

switchport voice vlan 300

C. interface gigabitethernet1/1

switchport mode trunk

switchport access vlan 300

switchport voice vlan 400

D. interface gigabitethernet1/1

switchport mode trunk

switchport trunk vlan 300

switchport trunk vlan 400

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

40. A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process.

How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?

41. If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

42. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

43. What is a zero-day exploit?

44. Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

45. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics of northbound APIs from the left onto any position on the right. Not all characteristics are used.

46. Refer to Exhibit.





Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

47. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

48. Refer to the exhibit.





The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1.

What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?

49. What must a network administrator consider when deciding whether to configure a new wireless network with APs in autonomous mode or APs running in cloud-based mode?

50. Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

51. What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)

52. Refer to the exhibit.





Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

53. What describes the operation of virtual machines?

54. What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

55. Refer to the exhibit.





After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship.

What is the reason for the problem?

56. What are two protocols within the IPsec suite? (Choose two)

57. Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

58. In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)

59. Refer to the Exhibit.





After applying this configuration to router R1, a network engineer is verifying the implementation. If all links are operating normally, and the engineer sends a series of packets from PC1 to PC3.

How are the packets routed?

60. What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

61. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

62. Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

63. Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?

64. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

65. Refer to the exhibit.





Router R1 must be configured to reach the 10.0.3.0/24 network from the 10.0.1.0/24 segment.

Which command must be used to configure the route?

66. Refer to the exhibit.





What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?

67. Refer to the Exhibit.





An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work.

Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?

68. Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

69. An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests.

Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

70. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

71. What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

72. Refer to the exhibit.





Router OldR is replacing another router on the network with the intention of having OldR and R2 exchange routes_ After the engineer applied the initial OSPF configuration: the routes were still missing on both devices.

Which command sequence must be issued before the clear IP ospf process command is entered to enable the neighbor relationship?

73. Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

74. Refer to the exhibit.





What is represented by "R1" and "SW1" within the JSON output?

75. Refer to the exhibit.





Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15.

What Is the next hop to the destination address?

76. Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?

77. Refer to the exhibit





Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN.

Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

78. By default, how long will the switch continue to know a workstation MAC address after the workstation stops sending traffic?

79. Refer to the exhibit.





How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve.

A)





B)





C)





D)

80. How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

81. What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

82. An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router.

What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?

83. Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

84. DRAG DROP

An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2.

85. Refer to the exhibit.





A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the internet.

86. Refer to the exhibit.





A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to connect with the 172.16.10.0/24 network on VLAN 20. The engineer wants to limit the number of devices that connect to the WLAN on the USERWL SSID to 125.

Which configuration must the engineer perform on the WLC?

87. What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

88. What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?

89. DRAG DROP

Refer to the Exhibit.





Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right.

90. Refer to the exhibit.





A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14.

What is the destination route for the packet?

91. What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

92. Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?

93. Refer to the exhibit.





An engineer is updating the management access configuration of switch SW1 to allow secured, encrypted remote configuration.

Which two commands or command sequences must the engineer apply to the switch? (Choose two.)

94. What is a reason to implement IPv4 private addressing?

95. Which type of IPv4 address must be assigned to a server to protect it from external access and allow only internal users access while restricting internet access?

96. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

97. An engineer is installing a new wireless printer with a static IP address on the Wi-Fi network.

Which feature must be enabled and configured to prevent connection issues with the printer?

98. Refer to the exhibit.

SW1(config-line)#line vty 0 15

SW1(config-line)#no login local

SW1(config-line)#password cisco



SW2(config)#username admin1 password abcd1234

SW2(config)#username admin2 password abcd1234



SW2(config-line)#line vty 0 15

SW2(config-line)#login local



SW3(config)#username admin1 secret abcd1234

SW3(config)#username admin2 secret abcd1234

SW3(config-line)#line vty 0 15

SW3(config-line)#login local



SW4(config)#username admin1 password abcd1234

SW4(config)#username admin2 password abcd1234

SW4(config-line)#line console 0

SW4(config-line)#login local

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure.

Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

99. What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?

100. Refer to the exhibit.





Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15? A)

101. Refer to the exhibit.





Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

102. Refer to the exhibit.





Which switch becomes the root bridge?

A)





B)





C)





D)

103. Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

104. Refer to the exhibit.





How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

105. An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch.

Which action should be taken?

106. Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

107. What is the benefit of using FHRP?

108. Refer to the exhibit.





Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

109. Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?

110. What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)

111. What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

112. Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

113. Refer to the exhibit.





A network engineer must configure communication between PC A and the file server.

Which commend must be configured on switch A to prevent interruption of other communications?

114. Refer to the exhibit.





Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

115. What is a link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address?

116. Refer to the exhibit.





A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14.

What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

117. Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

118. Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?

119. An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP





What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

120. What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

121. Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

122. Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

123. A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC.

Which action is taken by the phone?

124. What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?

125. DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.





Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

126. Refer to the Exhibit.





A)





B)





C)





D)

127. Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

128. A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer.

What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

129. Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

130. Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

131. Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out?

132. A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded.

Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?

133. When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?

134. A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining.

Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

135. What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?

136. When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

137. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

138. When an access point is seeking to join wireless LAN controller, which message is sent to the AP-Manager interface?

139. An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV).

What command sequence must be implemented?

140. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code.

Which type of security program is in place?

141. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the component details on the right.

142. What is the function of northbound API?

143. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the configuration management terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Not all terms are used.

144. Refer to the exhibit.





After configuring a new static route on the CPE. the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally.

When is the static default route installed into the routing table?

145. Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBiC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?

146. Refer to the exhibit.





An architect is managing a wireless network with APs from several branch offices connecting to the WLC in the data center. There is a new requirement for a single WLAN to process the client data traffic without sending it to the WLC.

Which action must be taken to complete the request?

147. Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

148. Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

149. Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

150. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

151. Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

152. Refer to Itie exhibit





A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch.

These requirements must be met:

* MAC addresses must be learned dynamically

* Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen.

Which two commands must be configured to complete this task"? (Choose two)

153. What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

154. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

155. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management technologies from the left onto the deployment type on the right.

156. Refer to the exhibit.





An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN.

Which configuration meets these requirements?

157. What is a function performed by a web server?

158. Refer to the exhibit.





Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

159. Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network when an autonomous AP maps two VLANs to its WLANs?

160. Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?

161. Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?

162. What are two characteristics of a small office / home office connection environment? (Choose two.)

163. What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

164. Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

165. Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:

• Only Telnet access is allowed.

• The enable password must be stored securely.

• The enable password must be applied in plain text.

• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.

Which configuration script meets the requirements?

A)





B)





C)





D)

166. Refer to the exhibit.





Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

167. When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?

168. Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

169. A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to January 1. 2020 and the time must be set to 12:00 am.

Which command should be used?

170. Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

171. When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

172. Refer to the exhibit.





Router R1 is running three different routing protocols.

Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

173. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

174. Refer to the exhibit.





Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

175. What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

176. Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?

177. Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

178. Refer to the exhibit.





Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

179. When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

180. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

181. What is a function of MAC address learning?

182. What is a reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

183. Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

184. Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?

185. Refer to the Exhibit.





A)





B)





C)





D)

186. Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute?

187. An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services.

Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

188. In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

189. How does frame switching function on a switch?

190. Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?

191. Refer to the exhibit.





An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:

• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2

• R1 will never participate in DR elections

• R1 will use a router-id of 101.1.1.

Which configuration must be used?

A)





B)





C)





D)

192. What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

193. When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?

194. What is a difference between local AP mode and FiexConnet AP mode?

195. Refer to Exhibit.





How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

196. An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host.

What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

197. What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?

198. A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.

Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

199. Refer to the exhibit.









Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

200. Refer to the exhibit.





What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?

201. What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

202. What is a feature of WPA?

203. Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

204. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the statements about access-point modes from the left onto the corresponding modes on the right.

205. Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?

206. Refer to the exhibit.





How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

207. Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?

208. An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet.

What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

209. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left onto the IPv6 address types on the right. Not all options are used.

210. Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

211. What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol on a specific subnet?

212. What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?

213. Refer to the exhibit.





Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?

214. Refer to the exhibit.





Which format matches the Modified EUI-64 IPv6 interface address for the network 2001:db8::/64?

215. Refer to the exhibit.





Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )

216. DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.





An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver.

Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

217. Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)

218. Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

219. What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?

220. What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

221. Refer to the exhibit.





Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)





B)





C)





D)

222. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

223. What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

224. Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC?

225. When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

226. What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

227. Which two server types support dornas name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >

228. Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

229. When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

230. Which encryption method is used by WPA3?

231. Refer to Exhibit.





An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network.

Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

232. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

233. Refer to the exhibit.





Which prefix did router R1 learn from internal EIGRP?

234. Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

235. How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

236. Which two features introduced in SNMPv2 provides the ability to retrieve large amounts of data in one request

237. Refer to the exhibit.





A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38.

Where does the router forward the packet?

238. Which set of 2.4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the United States?

239. Refer to the exhibit.





An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port.

Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

240. Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable

What is the result of this configuration?

241. On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

242. Refer to the exhibit.





Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building.

What must be the configuration of the connection?

243. Refer to the exhibit.





An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server.

Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

244. What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)

245. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

246. What is a DNS lookup operation?

247. Refer to the exhibit.





The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format.

When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?

248. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right

249. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used

250. DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.





An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead.

Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

251. What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

252. Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

253. Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

254. DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.





An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet.

Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

255. Refer to the exhibit.





PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 1 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down.

Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?

A)





B)





C)





D)