Paloalto Networks PCCET Dumps - Shortcut Key To Success

Paloalto Networks PCCET Dumps – Shortcut Key To Success

Jonnie Karnath2023-04-05T22:46:06+00:00

If you’re looking for a shortcut key to your success in the PCCET Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician exam, Certspots provides up-to-date, accurate, and reliable Paloalto Networks PCCET dumps that have been carefully crafted to help you pass your exam on the first try. These Paloalto Networks PCCET dumps have been designed to cover all the topics and concepts that you’ll need to know to pass the Paloalto Networks PCCET exam. Plus, they’re updated regularly to ensure that they reflect any changes or updates to the exam. They’re available in different formats, including PDF and practice exam software, which allows you to practice and test your knowledge before the actual exam.

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1. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which

Prisma access service layer?

Network

Management

Cloud

Security

2. Which Palo Alto Networks tool is used to prevent endpoint systems from running malware executables such as viruses, trojans, and rootkits?

Expedition

Cortex XDR

AutoFocus

App-ID

3. Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?

MineMeld

AutoFocus

WildFire

Cortex XDR

4. On which security principle does virtualization have positive effects?

integrity

confidentiality

availability

non-repudiation

5. Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?

endpoint antivirus software

strong endpoint passwords

endpoint disk encryption

endpoint NIC ACLs

6. In which phase of the cyberattack lifecycle do attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods?

exploitation

actions on the objective

command and control

installation

7. 1.What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)

Improving performance of SaaS applications by requiring all traffic to be back-hauled through the corporate headquarters network

Promoting simplicity through the utilization of a centralized management structure

Utilizing zero-touch provisioning for automated deployments

Leveraging remote site routing technical support by relying on MPLS

Improving performance by allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without requiring back-haul traffic to a centralized location

8. Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?

User-ID

Device-ID

App-ID

Content-ID

9. How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment

DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment

DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline

10. Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center?

Personal endpoint firewall

Port-based firewall

Next-generation firewall

Stateless firewall

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11. What differentiates Docker from a bare metal hypervisor?

Docker lets the user boot up one or more instances of an operating system on the same host whereas hypervisors do not

Docker uses more resources than a bare metal hypervisor

Docker is more efficient at allocating resources for legacy systems

Docker uses OS-level virtualization, whereas a bare metal hypervisor runs independently from the OS

12. You received an email, allegedly from a bank, that asks you to click a malicious link to take action on your account.

Which type of attack is this?

Whaling

Spamming

Spear phishing

Phishing

13. Which key component is used to configure a static route?

router ID

enable setting

routing protocol

next hop IP address

14. Which tool supercharges security operations center (SOC) efficiency with the world’s most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security?

Prisma SAAS

WildFire

Cortex XDR

Cortex XSOAR

15. Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

STIX

Cortex XDR

WildFire

AutoFocus

16. DRAG DROP

Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.

17. In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)

SaaS

PaaS

On-premises

IaaS

18. Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?

Group policy

Stateless

Stateful

Static packet-filter

19. Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?

VPN Concentrator

Content Identification

Segmentation Platform

Web Application Zone

20. Which technique changes protocols at random during a session?

use of non-standard ports

port hopping

hiding within SSL encryption

tunneling within commonly used services

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21. You have been invited to a public cloud design and architecture session to help deliver secure east west flows and secure Kubernetes workloads.

What deployment options do you have available? (Choose two.)

PA-Series

VM-Series

Panorama

CN-Series

22. DRAG DROP

Match the Palo Alto Networks WildFire analysis verdict with its definition.

23. Which native Windows application can be used to inspect actions taken at a specific time?

Event Viewer

Timeline inspector

Task Manager

Task Scheduler

24. Which feature of the VM-Series firewalls allows them to fully integrate into the DevOps workflows and CI/CD pipelines without slowing the pace of business?

Elastic scalability

External dynamic lists

Log export

25. What is used to orchestrate, coordinate, and control clusters of containers?

Kubernetes

Prisma Saas

Docker

CN-Series

26. Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?

an intranet-accessed contractor’s system that was compromised

exploitation of an unpatched security vulnerability

access by using a third-party vendor’s password

a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password

27. Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?

Types of physical storage media used

Data-at-rest encryption standards

Acceptable use of the SaaS application

Vulnerability scanning and management

28. Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

4G/LTE

VLF

L-band

2G/2.5G

29. Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?

cybercriminals

state-affiliated groups

hacktivists

cyberterrorists

30. Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?

192.168.19.0

192.168.19.16

192.168.19.64

192.168.19.32

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31. Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?

Beta

Kappa

Delta

Lambda

32. What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

Run it against VirusTotal.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

33. Which three services are part of Prisma SaaS? (Choose three.)

Data Loss Prevention

DevOps

Denial of Service

Data Exposure Control

Threat Prevention

34. What differentiates knowledge-based systems from behavior-based systems?

Behavior-based systems find the data that knowledge-based systems store.

Knowledge-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”.

Knowledge-based systems try to find new, distinct traits to find “bad” things.

Behavior-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”.

35. Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?

Threat Prevention

DNS Security

WildFire

URL Filtering

36. Which option describes the “selective network security virtualization” phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced

37. In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?

False-positive

True-negative

False-negative

True-positive

38. A user is provided access over the internet to an application running on a cloud infrastructure. The servers, databases, and code of that application are hosted and maintained by the vendor.

Which NIST cloud service model is this?

IaaS

SaaS

PaaS

CaaS

39. DRAG DROP

Match the DNS record type to its function within DNS.

40. Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?

They use script kiddies to carry out their attacks.

They have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks.

They lack the financial resources to fund their activities.

They typically attack only once.

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41. What type of area network connects end-user devices?

Wide Area Network (WAN)

Campus Area Network (CAN)

Local Area Network (LAN)

Personal Area Network (PAN)

42. TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?

Transport

Session

Data Link

Application

43. An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap.

Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?

Requirements for the three subnets:

Subnet 1: 3 host addresses

Subnet 2: 25 host addresses

Subnet 3: 120 host addresses

192.168.6.168/30

192.168.6.0/25

192.168.6.160/29

192.168.6.128/27

44. Which network device breaks networks into separate broadcast domains?

Hub

Layer 2 switch

Router

Wireless access point

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